GENERAL STUDIES

1. Chandragupta Maurya was

(A) An autocrat

(B) A Statesman

(C) A liberal ruler

(D) An enlightened despot

2. Who was the author of Kumarasambhava?

(A) Bhasya

(B) Shudraka

(C) Kalidas

(D) Harisena

3. In spite of her virtues Razia was not successful because

(A) She married Altuniya

(B) She used to behave like a man

(C) of her orthodox-religious belief

(D) Nobles disliked the rule of a woman

4. The great exponent of ‘Nirgun School’ was

(A) Tulsidas

(B) Surdas

(C) Kabir

(D) Mirabai

5. Which chronological order of Babur’s battles in India is correct?

(A) Panipat, Ghaghara, Chanderi, Khanuah

(B) Panipat, Chanderi, Khanuah, Ghaghara

(C) Panipat, Khanuah, Chanderi, Ghaghara

(D) Panipat, Khanuah, Ghaghara, Chanderi

6. The man who led the Revolt in Bihar was

(A) Amar Singh

(B) Bhanwar Singh

(C) Nana Sahib

(D) None of the above

7. Who wrote ‘India Wins Freedom’?

(A) Subhas Bose

(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

8. Who started ‘Bengalee’, a famous newspaper of Calcutta?

(A) W. C. Bonnerjee

(B) Surendranath Banerjea

(C) R. D. Banerji

(D) B.C. Pal

9. Which of the following is fresh water lake?

(A) Phalodi

(B) Koleru

(C) Shambhar

(D) Pullicut

10. Which one is the southern-most mountain range of India?

(A) Nilgiri Range

(B) Annamalai Range

(C) Nallamalai Range

(D) Cardamam Hills

11. In India which area is known as store house of coal?

(A) Raniganj

(B) Bokaro

(C) Jharia

(D) Taichar

12. Mr. Vivek Kundra joined U.S. President Obama’s administration as

(A) Federal Chief Health Officer

(B) Federal Chief Information Officer

(C) Chief of the Bureau of Budget

(D) Member of Federal Power Commission

13. Name the cricketer whose record of taking highest number of catches by a non-wicket keeper in test cricket was broken by Rahul Dravid in the series against New Zealand in 2009

(A) Ricky Ponting

(B) Mark Waugh

(C) Jacques Kallis

(D) Sanath jaya surya

14. Who won the Women’s World Cup Cricket held in Australia in 2009?

(A) South Africa

(B) England

(C) India

(D) New Zealand

15. Which one of the following States has started “Hooner”, a programme for Muslim girls?

(A) Kashmir

(B) Bihar

(C) Andhra Pradesh

(D) Orissa

16. In which country Asean Summit was postponed in April 2009 due' to Anti Government Protests?

(A) Singapore

(B) Philippines

(C) Burma (Myanmar)

(D) Thailand 

17. Which of the following fluids would cool a 'A inch thick piece of steel the fastest?

(A) Motor oil

(B) 25% salt water solution

(C) 5% salt water solution

(D) Pure water

18. A spring scale reads 20 N (Newton) as it pulls a 5.0 kg mass across a table. What is the magnitude of the force exerted by the mass on the spring scale?

(A) 49 N

(B) 20 N

(C) 5.0 N

(D) 4.0 N

19. Light year is a unit of

(A) Time

(B) Intensity of light

(C) Distance

(D) None of these

20. A burn caused by steam is more painful than a burn caused by boiling water because

(A) Steam penetrates inside the body

(B) Water is heavier than steam

(C) Steam has more attacking power

(D) Steam contains latent heat

21. The planet closest to the Sun is

(A) Mercury

(B) Venus

(C) Earth

(D) Mars

22. What comes in place of the question mark (?) 185x12-30+66-12 =?

(A) 12.33

(B) 11.67

(C) 79.5

(D) 89

23. Which of the following is not a mammal?

(A) Fish

(B) Bat

(C) Whale

(D) None of these

24. Who wrote Jaina Kalpasutra?

(A) Bhadrabahu

(B) Sthalabahu

(C) Mahavira

(D) Parsvanath

25. Fa-hien visited India during the period of

(A) Chandragupta Maurya

(B) Chandragupta I

(C) Samudragupta

(D) Chandragupta II

26. The Paramara dynasty was founded by

(A) Upendra

(B) Bhoja

(C) Sindhuraja

(D) Vakpati-Munja

27. 'The Kitab-ul-Hind' was written by

(A) Al-Masudi

(B) Abu Raihan Alberuni

(C) Ibn Batuta

(D) Megasthenese

28. Who wrote'Padmovat'?

(A) Chandbardai

(B) Narpati Nalha

(C) Gesudraj

(D) Jayasi

29. In British period the peasantry was ground down by the

(A) Zamindar

(B) Government

(C) Moneylender

(D) Merchant/middieman

30. Who was the President of Calcutta session of Congress in 1886?

(A) W. C. Bonnerjee

(B) Dadabhai Naoroji

(C) Badrudin Tyabji

(D) Naoroji Furdoonji

31. Who has been regarded as the 'heroine of Quit India Movement'?

(A) Kamla Devi Chattopadhyay

(B) Sucheta Kriplani

(C) Aruna AsafAli

(D) Sarojini Naidu

32. Which of the following is not an island?

(A) Rameshwaram

(B) Shriharikota

(C) New Moore

(D) Uran

33. What is the name of the reservoir made by Tehri dam project?

(A) Govind Sagar

(B) Umed Sagar

(C) Swami Ramthirth Sagar

(D) Govind Ballabh Sagar

34. The heighest waterfall in India is

(A) Kalindi waterfall

(B) Jog waterfall

(C) Milky waterfall

(D) Shimsha waterfall

35. After many years, Javan Rhinos were found in March 2009 in which one of the following countries?

(A) China

(B) Malaysia

(C) Indonesia

(D) Thailand

36. 'Spark' is the model of a car of which car manufacturing company?

(A) Ford

(B) Chevrolet

(C) Toyota

(D) Honda

37. What was the name of the reality show in which Jade Goody, who died recently of cancer, had a rift with Indian actress Shilpa Shetty?

(A) Big Boss

(B) Big Brother

(C) American Idol

(D) Indian Idol

38. In which among the following events did Abhinav Bindra win the first ever individual Gold medal by an Indian at Beijing Olympics?

(A) 50 metre Rifle

(B) 50 metre Pistol

(C) 10 metre Air Rifle

(D) 25 metre Pistol

39. Which company purchased Satyam Computer Services in April 2009 by quoting the highest bid?

(A) L&T

(B) W. L. Ross

(C) Infosys

(D) Tech Mahindra

40. A quick and simple method commonly used to inspect whether a metal is Stainless steel is to

(A) Measure its specific gravity

(B) Pass a current through it and measure its resistance

(C) Test if it will react with sulfuric acid

(D) Test if a magnet will be attracted to it

41. A light bulb breaks when it hits the floor but does not break when it hits a rug, because

(A) Change in momentum of the bulb is greater for the rug

(B) Change in momentum of the bulb is greater for the floor

(C) Light bulb weighs more when it hits the floor

(D) The time the bulb takes to stop moving is less for the floor

42. A hunter aims his gun at a monkey sitting at a distant tree. At the moment the bullet leaves the gun, the monkey drops vertically down. The bullet will

(A) Hit the monkey

(B) Not hit the monkey

(C) Pass above the monkey's head

(D) None of these

43. At higher altitudes water boils at temperature lower than 100°C because

(A) Boiling point of water becomes lower at lower atmospheric pressure

(B) Gravitational pull is lower at higher altitudes

(C) Wind on higher altitudes are stormy

(D) None of these

44. A diode is a device which forces the electric current

(A) To flow in one direction only

(B) To flow in both directions

(C) Not to flow at all

(D) None of these 

45. The most abundant element in the crust of the earth is

(A) Oxygen

(B) Nitrogen

(C) Manganese

(D) Silicon

46.The technique used to detect the paternal character of an offspring is

(A) Protein synthesis

(B) Chromosome counting

(C) Quantitative synthesis of DNA

(D) DNA finger printing

47. The second Buddhist Council was summoned by moneylenders?

(A) Seths

(B) Chettis

(C) Panis

(D) Nayars

48. Chola age was most famous for

(A) Village assemblies

(B) War with the Rashtrakutas

(C) Trade with Ceylon

(D) Advancement of Tamil culture

49.  What was the name of South Indian

(A) Bimbisara

(B) Kalasoka

(C) Ananda

(D) Asoka

50. Urdu as a new language was evolved for

(A) Official use

(B) Mutual intercourse

(C) Religious purposes

(D) Muslims only

51. Sheikh Nizam-ud-din Aulia was a

(A) Courtier

(B) Sufi saint

(C) Religious preacher

(D) Poet

52. Faujdar was in-charge of a

(A) Pafgana

(B) Province

(C) Sarkar

(D) Village

53. The Young Bengal Movement was inspired by

(A) Raja Rammohan Roy

(B) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

(C) David Hare

(D) Henry Vivian Derozio

54. Strafford Cripps was a member of the

(A) Conservative party

(B) Labour party

(C) Liberal party

(D) Official hierarchy

55. The All India Kisan Sabha was formed in

(A) 1920

(B) 1932

(C) 1936

(D) 1940

56. Which of the following State has the first place in the production of tin?

(A) Orissa

(B) Jharkhand

(C) Rajasthan

(D) Madhya Pradesh

57. Lowest Scheduled Tribes Population is found in

(A) Mizoram

(B) Nagaland

(C) Goa

(D) Karnataka

58. First nuclear energy plant in India was established in

(A) Nalore

(B) Kalpakam

(C) Bangalore

(D) Hyderabad

59. INS VIRAAT, the only aircraft carrier of the Indian Navy in the Indian ocean was originally commissioned into the Royal British Navy in 1959 as

(A) HMS Hermes

(B) HMS Argus

(C) HMS Furious

(D) HMS Ark Royal

60. Who has been appointed as the Director of the All India Institute of Medical Sciences for a term of five years after the retirement of Prof. Venugopal?

(A) Dr. R.C. Deka

(B) Dr. C. Ramdoss

(C) Dr. T.D. Dogra

(D) Dr.P.D.Dave

61. Who won the Women's Singles title in Tennis at the Australian Open in 2009?

(A) Dinara Safina

(B) Serena Williams

(C) Ana Ivanovic

(D) Sania Mirza

62. Who among the following was the author of the novel 'The White Tiger’ published in 2008?

(A) Jhumpa Lahiri

(B) Arvind Adiga

(C) ArundhatiRoy

(D) Salman Rushdie

63. Who was the Chairman of Sixth Central Pay Commission?

(A) R. Pandian

(B) Ravindra Dholakia

(C) B. N. Sri Krishna

(D) J.S.Mathur

64. Which of the following is measured in hertz?

(A) Speed

(B) Amplitude

(C) Wavelength

(D) Frequency

65. Which of the following is a source of emission in a microwave oven?

(A) A cyclotron

(B) A magnetron

(C) A laser lamp

(D) A cathode ray tube

66. An athlete can take a longer jump if he comes running from a distance as compared to that when he jumps suddenly. This is because of

(A) Inertia of rest

(B) Inertia of motion

(C) Inertia of direction

(D) Inertia of position

67. If water completely filling a bottle be frozen, the bottle cracks because

(A) Water expands on freezing

(B) Bottle contracts when water freezes

(C) External temperature of the bottle is more than the internal temperature

(D) Water contracts on freezing

68. If ten bulbs of 100 watt each are kept switched on for one hour each day, the energy consumed per day will be

(A) 1 Unit

(B) 100 KWH

(C) 10 Units

(D) 10 KWH

69. In all organic compounds an essential fundamental element is

(A) Nitrogen

(B) Oxygen

(C) Carbon

(D) Sulfur

70. Pinki, Rinku and Tinku divide an amount of Rs. 4200 among themselves in the ratio 7:8:6 respectively. If an amount of Rs. 200 be added to each of their shares, what will be the new respective ratio of their shares?

(A) 8:9:7

(B) 7:8:6

(C) 7:9:5

(D) 8:9:6

71. Number of chambers in the heart of a mammal are

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5

72. Which one of the following Vedas dealt with rituals?

(A) Rigveda

(B) Samaveda

(C) Yajurveda

(D) Atharveda

73. The largest stupa at Sanchi is assignable to the period of the

(A) Mauryas

(B) Kushatias

(C) Satavahanas

(D) Guptas

74. Who were the first rulers to issue gold coins in India?

(A) Mauryas

(B) Indo-Greeks

(C) Guptas

(D) Kushanas

75. The 'Padmini Episode' is connected with which Sultan?

(A) Ala-ud-din Khalji

(B) Muhammad-binTughluq

(C) Firozshah Tughluq

(D) Sikandar Lodhi

76. The Saka era began in the year

(A) 58B.C.

(B) 78B.C.

(C) 58A.D.

(D) 78A.D.

77. Sir Thomas Roe came to India during the reign of

(A) Akbar

(B) Jahangir

(C) Shahjahan

(D) Aurangzeb

78. Din-i-llahi promulgated by Akbar in 1582 was

(A) Islamic doctrine

(B) Code of Conduct

(C) Hindu law influenced by Islam

(D) None of the above

79. Which class of Indians was impacted by Western culture?

(A) Hindu aristocracy

(B) Muslim aristocracy

(C) Educated Hindu middle class

(D) Educated Muslim middle class

80. Who founded the Servants of India Society in 1905?

(A) Dadabhai Naoroj

(B) Madan Mohan Malviya

(C) Gopal Krishan Gokhale

(D) Motilal Nehru

81. Who started Gurukui Kangri Vishwavidyalya?

(A) Swami Dayanand

(B) Lala Lajpat Rai

(C) Mahatma Hansraj

(D) None of the above

82. The road from Leh to Manali is situated at the height of

(A) 4500m

(B) 3500m

(C) 4000m

(D) 5000m

83. Where in India does pearl fishing take place?

(A) Tutikorin

(B) Kandla

(C) Cochin

(D) Puri

84. Which one of the following Tidal Power Project?

(A) Bhadrawati

(B) Koyna

(C) Bhavnagar

(D) RawatBhata

85. Which of the following is the leading State of India in the production of Lac?

(A) Assam

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(C) Bihar

(D) Orissa

86. According to 2001 Census, literacy rate in Kerala is

(A) 99.81%

(B) 95.81%

(C) 90.92%

(D) 98.81%

87. Malabar coast is situated between

(A) Goa and Kanyakumari

(B) Gujarat and Goa

(C) Ganga delta and Kanyakumari

(D) Nellore and Kanyakumari

88. The Summit of the leaders of the World's largest economies known as G-20 held in 2009 in

(A) Paris

(B) Washington

(C) Moscow

(D) London

89. What is the name of the telescope which was launched into space on Delta-Il Rocket by the US space agency NASA in 2009?

(A) Hubble

(B) Spitzer

(C) James Webb

(D) Kepler

90. Who won the Oscar for the best Sound Mixing in the film Slumdog Millionaire?

(A) A. R. Rehman

(B) Gulzar

(C) Resul Pekutty

(D) Anil Kapoor

91. 108th Constitution Amendment Bill is also known as

(A) Tada Bill

(B) Women's (Reservation of Seats) Bill

(C) Cooperative Societies Bill

(D) Lokpal Bill

92. Heating fuels in the absence of air is called "Destructive Distillation" because it breaks them into components. What we get when we do the same to wood?

(A) Charcoal

(B) Acetic acid

(C) Tar

(D) All of them

93. The 34th Summit of G-8 was held in

(A) Japan

(B) Italy

(C) France

(D) Germany

94. If the sum of all the forces acting on a moving object is zero, the object will

(A) Slow down and stop

(B) Change the direction of its motion

(C) Accelerate uniformly.

(D) Continue moving with constant velocity

95. Bodies falling freely from a high tower have

(A) Equal velocity

(B) Equal acceleration

(C) Equal momentum

(D) Equal force

96. Mirages are seen in deserts on a hot afternoon because of

(A) Refraction

(B) Total internal reflection

(C) Dispersion

(D) Diffraction

97. Which of the following gas is responsible for acid rain?

(A) CFC

(B) Methane

(C) Ozone

(D) SO2

98. Main constituent of polluting gases coming S out of the exhaust pipes of motor vehicles is

(A) Carbon dioxide

(B) Carbon monoxide

(C) Marsh gas

(D) Nitrogen oxide

99. Mohan's average score after 4 tests is 89, what score in the Sth test would bring his average to exactly 90?

(A) 94

(B) 93

(C) 92

(D) 91

100. In year 2000, population of town A was 9400 and that of town B was 7600. Since then each year, the population of town A has decreased by 100 and that of town B has increased by 100. In which year the populations of both the towns become equal?

(A) 2118

(B) 2117

(C) 2010

(D) 2009 

Bihar Judicial Service Exam, 2009 [Judicial Exam. P.T.]  LAW

1. The writ of Habeas corpus means

(A) To produce the Body of a person illegally detained before a Court

(B) Respect the Human Rights of a person

(C) Stop the violation of a right of a man

(D) None of the above

2. The writ of Certiorari can be issued against

(A) A person exercising purely administrative powers

(B) Against a Minister

(C) Against any Quasi Judicial or Judicial authority

(D) None of the above

3. Act of State can be questioned and challanged in

(A) Privy Council

(B) Queens Court

(C) High Court

(D) None of the above

4. During the operation of Martial Law

(A) The citizens important rights are suspended

(B) Parliament is dissolved

(C) Civilian Govt, is suspended

(D) None of the above

5. Out of the following which is not a Void Marriage?

(A) That at the time of the Marriage either

(B) Party has a spouse he parties are sapindas to each other

(C) The parties are within prohibited degree of relationship

(D) That either party is of bad character

6. A Hindu female can adopt a male child but, she must be senior to the child by at least

(A) 12 years

(B) 14 years

(C) 18 years

(D) 21 years

7. Hindu Law is not applicable in which of the following cases?

(A) Any person who is a Hindu, Jain, Sikh or Bhuadhist by religion

(B) Any person who is bom of Hindu parents

(C) Any person who is not a Muslim, Christian, Parsi or Jew

(D) Members of the scheduled tribes coming within clause (25) of Article 366 of the Constitution of India

8. Marriage with Eunuch is regarded as

(A) Illegal 

(B) Legal

(C) Void

(D) Voidable

9. What type of Muslim marriage is which is performed temporarily for enjoyment?

(A) Batil

(B) Sahih

(C) Muta

(D) Fasid

10. The Statutory Instruments Act 1946 ensures

(A) Judicial control of delegated legislation

(B) Growth of delegated legislation

(C) Parliamentary control of delegated legislation

(D) None of the above

11. Two important principles of Natural Justice in the British administrative law are

(A) Doctrine of Bias and Doctrine of Hearing

(B) Doctrine of Bias and Right of cross examination

(C) Personal Bias and cross examination

(D) None of the above

12. Which out of the following is not a ground, which allows a guardian to give a child in adoption?

(A) If both the parents are dead

(B) If parties nave finally renounced the world

(C) If parents have been declared judicially to oe of unsound mind

(D) If parents are illiterate

13. Which out of the following does not fall within the meaning of the term 'Avyavaharika' debt?

(A) An Immoral debt

(B) An Illegal debt

(C) A debt resulting from Tortuous act

(D) Suretyship debt

14. The term Ombudsman in English Administrative Law means

(A) A Parliamentary Commissioner

(B) Vigilance Commissioner of England

(C) Speaker of House of Commons

(D) None of the above

15. The Crown Proceeding Act was enacted in

(A) 1935                        (B) 1942

(C) 1945                        (D) 1947

16. Marriage in Muslim Law

(A) A Sacrament

(B) A Civil Contract

(C) A Sacrament and a Civil Contract both

(D) A Social Status

17. What is the age of Puberty for a Muslim marriage?

(A) 9 years

(B) 12 years

(C) 15 years

(D) 18 years

18. Marriage by a Muslim with his real sister is

(A) Void

(B) Voidable

(C) Valid

(D) Invalid

19. In Muslim Law

(A) Payment of Meher is necessary

(B) Payment of Meher is not necessary  

(C) Meher is to be paid on demand before marriage 

(D) Meher is determined after marriage 

20. Which out of the following is not modern source of Hindu Law?

(A) Equity, Justice and good Conscience 

(B) Precedent 

(C) Legislation

(D) Custom

21. The Nature of Marriage of a Impotent Person Is

(A) Void

(B) Voidable 

(C) Illegal 

(D) None of the above

22. The highest court In British Constitution la called

(A) Privy Council 

(B) High Court

(C) Supreme Court 

(D) House of Lords

23. The Fundamental Rights in England are given to citizens by

(A) The written constitution

(B) By conventions of the Constitution

(C) By judicial decisions

(D) None of the above

24. Which out of the following is not regarded as 'Stridhan' by Shastric Hindu Law 

(A) Gifts from relatives

(B) Property purchased with Stridhan

(C) Property obtained in lieu of maintenance

(D) Gifts of immovable property by husband

25. The legal status of a mahant of 'Math' is

(A) A Trustee

(B) Corporation sole

(C) Owner of 'Maths' property

(D) Manager of 'Math'

26. In which section of Indian Evidence Act, the Plea of Alibi is lald down 

(A) Section 7 

(B) Section 26 

(C) Section 49

(D) Section 11

27. Under which section of Evidence Act, confession before Police is not admissible

(A) Section 25

(B) Section 32

(C) Section 20

(D) Section 21

28. In which section, doctrine of dying declaration Is found?

(A) Section 16

(C) Section 32 

(B) Section 27 

(D) Section 41

29. A sues B for Rs.1000 and shows entries in his account book showing B to be indebted to him to this amount. This entry is

(A) Not relevant

(B) Relevant

(C) Does not have evidentiary value

(D) Inadmissible

30. Out of the following which is not a secondary evidence?

(A) Copies made from the original by mechanical process 

(B) Copies made from or compared with the original

(C) Oral accounts of the contents of a document given by a person who has himself seen it

(D) Oral account of a Photograph

31. Presumption as to dowry death Is lald down In

(A) Section 113-B

(B) Section 114

(C) Section 117

(D) Section 118

32. Under which provision of Civil Procedure Code, a High Court can transfer a case?

(A) Section 25 C.P.C.

(B) Section 20 C.P.C.

(C) Section 12 C.P.C.

(D) Section 15 C.P.C.

33. Under which section of C.P.C. a notice is required to be given at least two months before filing a suit against a Central or State Government?

(A) Section 50 C.P.C.

(B) Section 51 C.P.C.

(C) Section 80 C.P.C.

(D) Section 81 C.P.C.

34. Facts forming part of the same Transaction are known as 

(A) Plea of Alibi

(B) Dying Declaration

(C) Admission

(D) Res Gestae

35. The term Judicial confession means

(A) It is made before a Police Officer

(B) It is caused by inducemant threat or promise 

(C) It is made before any court officers

(D) It is made before a Magistrate

36. No person shall be twice punished for the same offence is Incorporated in

(A) Art. 19 1(F)

(B) Art. 20(2)

(C) Art. 22

(D) Art. 368

37. Which out of the following is not a right covered by Art. 21 of the Constitution?

(A) Right to Health

(B) Right to Education

(C) Right to safe drinking water

(D) Right to Strike

38. A person who is appointed to protect the disputed property is known as

(A) A judgement debto 

(B) Commissioner

(C) Receiver 

(D) A Pauper

39. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act was enacted in

(A) 1908

(B) 1940

(C) 1996

(D) 2002

40. Section 482 Cr.P.C. deals with

(A) Injunction

(B) Arrest of a proclaimed offender

(C) Appellate powers of High Court

(D) Inherent powers of a High Court

41. By which amendment, the words Secular and Socialist were included in the preamble?

(A) 1st Amendment

(B) 6th Amendment 

(C) 42nd Amendment

(D) 44th Amendment

42. In which section of Indian Evidence Act, opinion of third person is relevant?

(A) Section 14

(B) Section 34

(C) Section 44

(D) Section 45

43. In criminal proceedings, the fact that the person accused is of good character is relevant according to

(A) Section 53

(B) Section 54

(C) Section 55

(D) Section 56

44. In civil proceedings, ordinarily a civil judge is required to deliver judgements within ninety days of the conclusion of hearing, this was proposed by

(A) Amendment Act of 1 976

(B) Amendment Act of 1 999

(C) Amendment Act of 2002

(D) None of the above

45. Under which article of the Constitution Parliament can create a new state?

(A) Art. 3

(B) Art. 4

(C) Art. 5

(D) Art. 368

46. Which out of the following is not covered under 'State' of Article 12 of the Constitution?

(A) Central Govt.

(B) State Govt.

(C) University of Patna

 

(D) A Deity

47. Who out of the following cannot be appointed as arbitrator?

(A) A person of sound mind

(B) A person who has attained the age of majority

(C) A person who has an interest in the 85. subject matter of dispute

(D) A person of good character

48. Under which section of Cr.P.C. a Police Officer can release an accused on ball in non-bellablo case.

(A) Section 336

(B) Section 337

(C) Section 436

(D) Section 437

49. From which date Civil became operative? Procedure Code 1906,

(A) 1st January, 1908

(B) 1st April, 1908

(C) 31st December, 1908

(D) 1st January, 1909

50. Under which section of Cr.P.C. a Magistrate can arrest a person?

(A) Section 3 8

(B) Section 40

(C) Section 41 

(D) Section 44 

51. Who will be Guardian of a minor under Muslim LAN?

(A) Mother

(B) Father

(C) Executor appointed will on death of father

(D) Grand father

52. The Guardian who does not possess the right of transfer of property of a minor

(A) Natural Guardian

(B) De Facto Guardian

(C) Legal Guardian

(D) Guardian appointed by Court

53. The term actionable claim does not Include any one of the following:

(A) Claim for arrears of rent

(B) A share in partnership

(C) The right to the proceed of business

(D) A debt secured by mortgage of Immovable property

54. Which out of the following does not constitute exception to the rule against perpetuity?

(A) Where a property is transferred for the benefit of the public

(B) A lesse with a covenant for renewal

(C) It does not apply in vested interests

(D) A fund is bequeathed to next seven generations

55. Which out of the following is not a transfer According to T.P. Act?

(A) Sale

(B) Gift

(C) Exchange

(D) Abandonment of a claim to property

56. What is the meanning of the maxim equity acts In porsonam?

(A) Equity enforces its behest by acting on the conscience of the person who is charged therewith

(B) Equity looks on that as done which ought to have been done

(C) Where there is equal equity the Law still prevail

(D) None of the above

57. Who gave the following comment? "Trust is the very centre and kernel of Equity

(A) Bacon

(B) Story 

(C) Snell

(D) Hanbury

58. Under which section of the Trust Act 1882 the definition of the brooch of trust is provided 

(A) 1(d) 

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 5

59. As a general rule what le the liability of n trustee for branch of trust by co-trustee?

(A) Fully liable

(B) Partially liable

(C) No liability

(D) None of the above

60. Which out of the following is not a kind of mortgage?

(A) Mortgage by conditional sale

(B) Usufructuary mortgage

(C) English mortgage

(D) Subrogation

61. Which out of the following does not constitute agricultural lease?

(A) A lease for rearing tea plants

(B) A lease for cultivation of Indigo

(C) A lose for cultivation of potatoes

(D) A lease for gathering fruits from trees

62. When is Iddat observed for three months

(A) On the death of husband

(B) On the death of husband of pregnant woman

(C) On Divorce

(D) On Invalid marriage

63. Talaq which cannot be revoked after pronouncement, is called

(A) Talaq-ul Bain

(B) Talaq-I Tufweez

(C) Talaq-I-Iddat

(D) Talaq Hasan

64. Who has no right of maintenance?

(A) Unmarried Daughter

(B) Poor Parents

(C) Physically disabled major son

(D) Widow Daughter

65. Which out of the following is not immovable property according to T.P. Act, 1882?

(A) Land

(B) Benefits to arise out of land

(C) Things attached to earth

(D) Standing timber

66. A gift of immovable property can be given

(A) By delivery of immovable property

(B) By written instrument

(C) By delivery and registration of document

(D) None of the above

67. Out of the following, which is a actionable claim?

(A) Mortgage debt

(B) Mesne profit

(C) Decree

(D) Provident fund

68. The Law regarding transfer by ostensible owner is laid down in

(A) Section 39

(B) Section 41

(C) Section 45

(D) Section 53

69. The literary meaning of Lis Pendens is

(A) A suit under consideration of any court of law

(B) A previous decision bars the subsequent filing of the suit

(C) Exception to Doctrine of Res-judicata

(D) None of the above 

70. The term ces-tui-que trust was used by

(A) Queen's Court

(B) High Court

(C) Court of Equity

(D) None of the above

71. Who out of the following cannot create a trust?

(A) A person of 21 years of age

(B) An advocate

(C) A minor

(D) A juristic person

72. Which section of T.P. Act bars fraudulent transfer?

(A) Section 43

(B) Section 53

(C) Section 63

(D) Section 71

73. "Equity had come not to destroy the Law but fulfill it"—who said this?

(A) Maitland

(B) Potter

(C) Salmond

(D) Snell

74. The meaning of the maxim "Equality is Equity" is

(A) Equity delights in equity

(B) Delay defeats equity

(C) Equity looks to the intent rather to the form

(D) None of the above 

75. The doctrine of part performance is based on 

(A) Section 53A

(B) Section 54

(C) Section 57(B)

(D) None of the above

76. A buys from B an original paintings of Piccasso. B refuses to honour his promise. On what ground, A can specifically enforce the contract?

(A) Compensation is not an adequate remedy

(B) He loves Piccasso's paintings

(C) He wants to make his collections of Paintings rich

(D) None of the above

77. A enters into contract with B to marry her. Can this contract be specifically enforced?

(A) Yes

(B) No

(C) With the help of court, yes

(D) None of the above

78. The case related to minors agreement is void abinitio is

(A) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co

(B) Mohoribibi V. Dharmadas Chose

(C) Nash V. Inman

(D) None of these

79. The consent obtained by threatening to commit suicide amounts to consent by

(A) Coercion

(B) Undue influence

(C) Fraud

(D) None of these

80. The law relating to the payment of damages is based on the leading English case of

(A) Hadley v. Baxandale

(B) Hobbs v. London Rly. Co.

(C) Hadley v. Sullivan

(D) None of these

81. In case of breach of contract which of the following remedy is available to the aggrieved party?

(A) Suit for recession

(B) Suit for damages

(C) Suit for specific performance

(D) All of these

82. The meaning of the maxim UBI-JUS-IBI Remediam is

(A) Where there is a right there is a remedy

(B) Rights and Duties are Co-relative

(C) Tort is actionable perse

(D) None of the above

83. Which out of the following persons is an exception who cannot sue for tort?

(A) An alien enemy

(B) Husband and wife

(C) A child in mothers womb

(D) A Govt, servant

84. In the wrong of negligence there is breach of

(A) Legal duty of the defendant

(B) Legal right of the defendant

(C) Of good faith

(D) None of the above

85. Objective theory of negligence was given by

(A) Salmond

(B) Austin

(C) Holland

(D) Pollock

86. The delivery of goods by one person to another for some specific purpose is known as

(A) Bailment

(B) Pledge

(C) Hypothecation

(D) Mortgage

87. Tort is a special branch of Law which originated in

(A) America

(B) France

(C) India

(D) England

88. The remedy in case of tort is

(A) Deterrent punishment to wrong doer

(B) Reformation of wrongdoer

(C) Compensation in money (Damages)

(D) None of the above

89. Gloucestour Grammer School case is about

(A) Damnum Sine Injuria

(B) Injuria Sine Damnum

(C) Contributory negligence

(D) Strict liability

90. A void contract is one which is

(A) Enforceable at the option of one party

(B) Enforceable at the option of both the parties

(C) Enforceable at the direction of court

(D) Not enforceable in the court of Law

91. A voidable contract is one which

(A) Can be enforced at the option of aggrieved party

(B) Can be enforced at the option of both the parties

(C) Cannot be enforced in a court of Law

(D) Courts prohibit

92. Where the consent of both the parties is given by mistake, the contract is

(A) Void

(B) Valid

(C) Voidable

(D) Illegal

93. A agrees to sell his car to B at a price which B may be able to pay. This agreement is

(A) Void

(B) Valid

(C) Voidable

(D) Contingent

94. Which out of the following cannot be used as defences in an action for tort?

(A) Acts of State

(B) Judicial acts

(C) Statutory authority

(D) A Tax payer

95. Vidyawati v. State of Rajasthan is a case Law relating to

(A) Tortuous liability of corporations

(B) Tortuous liability of a company

(C) Vicarious Liability of State

(D) None of the above

96. A person who supplies 'Necessaries' to a minor is entitled to be reimbursed from the property of the minor on the basis of a

(A) Valid contract

(B) Voidable contract

(c) Quasi contract

(D) Contingent contract

97. On the valid performance of the contractual obligations by the parties, the contract

(A) Is discharged

(B) Becomes enforceable

(C) Becomes void

(D) None of these

98. The case of Reyland v. Fletcher has laid down the principle of

(A) Defamation

(B) Conspiracy

(C) Strict liability of land owner

(D) None of the above

99. Asa general rule, an agreement made without consideration is

(A) Void

(B) Voidable

(C) Valid

(D) Unlawful

100. A agrees to sell his scooter worth Rs. 10,000/- to B for Rs. 5000/- only and as consent was obtained by coercion. Here the agreement is

(A) Void

(B) Valid

(C) Voidable

(D) Unlawful

101. A general procedure for alteration of articles of association which has the effect of converting a public company into a private company is by passing

(A) Special resolution and approval of CLB

(B) Special resolution and approval of Central Govt.

(C) Ordinary resolution and approval of CLB

(D) None of the above

102. The power to order rectification of register of members vests in the

(A) Court

(B) Company Law Board

(C) Central Govt.

(D) Board of Directors

103. The case of Abranth v. North Eastern Rly. Co. is about

(A) Malicious prosecution

(B) Defamation

(C) Strict liability

(D) None of the above

104. Which out of the following does not constitute an exception to the rule in Ryland v. Fletcher?

(A) Act of God

(B) Malicious Act of Stranger

(C) Plantiffs own fault

(D) Poor condition of land

105. A orally abuses B, it is a case of

(A) Libel

(B) Slander

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

106. The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 deals with the

(A) Movable goods only

(B) Immovable goods only

(C) Both movable and immovable goods

(D) All goods except ornaments

107. Which of the following is not an essential feature of partnership?

(A) Result of an agreement

(B) Organised to carry on business

(C) Carried on by all or any of them acting for all

(D) Separate legal entity

108. A Dormant partner is one who is

(A) Entitled to share profits only

(B) Neither active nor known to outsiders

(C) Not interested in the business of the firm

(D) Not liable to outsider

109. A person who receives a negotiable instrument in good faith and for valuable consideration is known as

(A) Holder

(B) Holder for value

(C) Holder in due course

(D) Holder in rights

110. All Cheques are Bills of Exchange, but all Bills of Exchange are not Cheques

(A) True

(B) False

(C) Partly true and partly false

(D) None of the above

111. The case of Ratlam Municipality v. Virdhichand is related to

(A) Conspiracy

(B) Malicious prosecution

(C) Tortuous liability of Municipal Corporation

(D) None of the above

112. Kasturilal v. State of U.P. is related to

(A) Contractual liability of State

(B) Vicarious liability of State

(C) Fraud of State

(D) None of the above

113. A company in which 51% or more shares are held by the Govt, is called

(A) A Private Company

(B) A Public Company

(C) A Govt. Company

(D) None of the above

114. The capital with which the company is registered is called the

(A) Subscribed capital

(B) Authorised capital

(C) Working capital

(D) Noneofthese

115. Which of the following is not competent to draw a valid negotiable instrument?

(A) Insolvent

(B) Company

(C) Agent

(D) Both (B) and (C)

116. Section 138 of the Negotiable Instrument Act deals with

(A) Punishment for dishonour of cheque

(B) Rights of holder

(C) Rights of holder in due course

(D) None of the above

117. Which of the following is not an implied condition in a contract of sale?

(A) Condition as to title

(B) Condition as to description

(C) Condition as to free from encumbrance

(D) Condition as to sample

118. The unpaid seller can exercise his right of stoppage of goods in transit where the buyer

(A) Becomes insolvent

(B) Refuses to pay price

(C) Acts fraudulently

(D) All these

119. The registration of partnership firm with the Registrar of Companies is

(A) Compulsory

(B) Optional

(C) Required under section 54

(D) None of the above

120. Which of the following is not the right of a partner?

(A) Right to take part in business

(B) Right to have access to account books

(C) Right to share profits

(D) Right to receive remuneration

121. Which of the following is not the charcteristic of a Public Company?

(A) It has a separate legal entity

(B) It has a perpetual succession

(C) It has a common seal and separate property

(D) Its shares are non-transferable

122. The meaning of the term Caveat Emptor is

(A) Let the buyer beware

(B) Goods should be free from defects

(C) Ownership of goods passes after sale

(D) None of the above

123. The unpaid seller can exercise his right of lien over the goods for

(A) Price of goods

(B) Storage charges

(C) Any Lawful charges

(D) All of these

124. The Negotiable Instruments Act makes specific mention of three instruments, namely Cheque, Bill of exchange and

(A) Promissory note

(B) Hundi

(C) Bank Draft

(D) All the above

125. On which of the following grounds a partner may apply to the court for dissolution of the firm?

(A) Insanity of a partner

(B) Misconduct of a partner

(C) Perpetual losses in business

(D) All of the above

126. As a guardian of the Govt, of India Act, 1935 a court was constituted which was called

(A) Privy Council

(B) Supreme Court 

(C) High Court

(D) Federal Court

127. The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of

(A) Govt, of India Act, 1919

(B) Govt, of India Act, 1935

(C) The Indian Independence Act, 1947

(D) None of the above

128. Delegatus non Potest Delagare means

(A) A delegate can further delegate its powers

(B) Delegated legislation is valid

(C) A delagate cannot further delegate his powers

(D) None of the above

129 The doctrine of separation of powers in the context of English constitution is not fully applicable because

(A) Executive is responsible to the Legislature .

(B) Legislature is responsible to the Judiciary

(C) Executive and Legislature are Independent to each other

(D) None of the above

130. The case of Unnikrishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh deals with which of the following rights?

(A) Right to go Abroad .

(B) Right to Education

(C) Right to Privacy

(D) Right of an environment free from pollution .

131. Under which article of the Constitution a distinguished jurist can be appointed a Judge of Supreme Court?

(A) Art. 124(2)

(B) Art. 127

(C) Art. 128

(D) Art. 130

132. The case of State of Bihar v. Kameshwar Singh is related with which of the following doctrines?

(A) Doctrine of Basic Structure

(B) Doctrine of Eclipse

(C) Doctrine of pith and substance

(D) Doctrine of Colourable Legislation

133. Entry 97 of Union list of the Constitution deals with

(A) Agriculture

(B) Education

(C) Police

(D) Reserved Power

134. Article 312 of the Constitution is related to

(A) Constitution of all India Services

(B) Powers of Chief Election Commissioner

(C) Breach of Parliamentary privileges

(D) None of the above

135. Under the Govt, of India's Aet 1935, how many Governors provinces and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India?

(A) 14 and 7

(B) 11 and 7

(C) 15 and 9

(D) None of the above

136. The Acts of 1911 and 1948 has made

(A) The House of Commons powerless

(B) The House of Lords powerless

(C) The House of Lords most powerful

(D) None of the above

137. The nature of power of Parliament to punish any person for breach of its privilege is

(A) Judicial

(B) Administrative

(C) Quasi Judicial

(D) None of the above

138. Article 301 of the Constitution is related to

(A) Right to property

(B) Rights of civil servants

(C) Money bill

(D) Freedom of Inter-State Trade

139. Under which article of the Constitution, a State can impose tax on Inter- State trade with the prior approval of the President?

(A) Art. 302

(B) Art. 303 (I)

(C) Art. 303(11)

(D) Art. 304

140. Writ of Quo Warranto is related with

(A) Illegal detention of a person

(B) Want of Jurisdiction of a court

(C) Illegal holder of a Public Office

(D) None of the above

141. Which out of the following does not constitute basic structure of the Constitution?

(A) Right to Equality

(B) Secularism

(C) Judicial review

(D) Right to speedy trial

142. The doctrine of rule of law in England means

(A) Absence of Arbitrary powers

(B) Absence of discretionary powers

(C) Supremacy of droit administratiff

(D) None of the above . .

143. The doctrine of rule of law in British constitution was propounded by

(A) Winston Churchil

(B) Douglas Home

(C) Jenning

(D) Prof. Dicey

144. The provision relating to the Federal Structure can be amended by Parliament

(A) By simple majority

(B) By 2/3rd majority

(C) By absolute majority

(D) By 2/3rd majority of members present and voting and ratification by half of the State

145. Article 300 of the Constitution deals with

(A) Tortuous and contractual liability of State

(B) Right to Property

(C) Freedom of trade and commerce

(D) Parliamentary privileges

146. Article 329 of the Constitution deals with

(A) Amending power of Parliament

(B) Taxing power of Parliament

(C) Delimitation of Electoral constituencies

(D) None of the above

147. The customs, usages and traditions in British constitution are known as

(A) Rule of law

(B) Supremacy of the Parliament

(C) Conventions of the Constitution

(D) None of the above

148. The two Houses of British Parliament are

(A) House of Commons and Senate

(B) Senate and House of Lords

(C) House of Commons and Diet

(D) House of Commons and House of Lords

149. Automobiles Ltd. v. State of Rajasthan is a case related to

(A) Federalism

(B) Amendability of the Constitution

(C) Judicial review

(D) Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse

150. The Concurrent list of the Constitution has

(A) 52 Entries

(B) 99 Entries

(C) 107 Entries

(D) None of the above